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santosguzella
Poincare Conjecture
Poincare Conjecture

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Joined: 04 Jan 2007
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Location: Belo Horizonte, Brazil

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#1
Convex function
help proving this property

Prove that all functions f: [ 0, \infty ) \rightarrow [ 0, \infty ) such: f^{' '}(x)>0 for all x \in [ 0, \infty ) satisfies:
f\Big(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}+...+x_{n}}{n}\Big) \le \frac{f(x_{1})+f(x_{2})+...f(x_{n})}{n}

PostPosted: Sun Jul 08, 2007 12:10 am
zgorkster
Poincare Conjecture
Poincare Conjecture

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#2
This is a very commonly known theorem called Jensen's inequality. Here is a good link:

[url]http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/JensensInequality.html [/url]
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PostPosted: Sun Jul 08, 2007 5:01 am
santosguzella
Poincare Conjecture
Poincare Conjecture

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Location: Belo Horizonte, Brazil

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#3
zgorkster wrote:
This is a very commonly known theorem called Jensen's inequality. Here is a good link:

[url]http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/JensensInequality.html [/url]


thx zgorkster.. Very Happy

PostPosted: Sun Jul 08, 2007 5:38 am
BaBaK Ghalebi
Navier-Stokes Equations
Navier-Stokes Equations

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#4
I didnt find any proof in the above link,so here is a proof for jensen inequality:

first we know that f is convex iff for every \lambda \in [0,1] we have:

f(\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y)\leq \lambda f(x)+(1-\lambda)f(y)

i.e. f(w_{1}x+w_{2}y)\leq w_{1}f(x)+w_{2}f(y) where w_{1},w_{2} are psoitive numbers s.t w_{1}+w_{2}=1...

now we want to prove:

jensen inequality:for convex function f we have:

f(\sum_{i=1}^{n}w_{i}x_{i})\geq \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_{i}f(x_{i}) where \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_{i}=1


proof:we prove the above inequality with induction on n...

first of all for n=2 it follows immediately from the definition of convex functions mentiond above...

now assume that its true for n-1 i.e. for every n-1 numbers w_{1},...,w_{n-1} with sum equal to 1 we have:

f(\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}w_{i}x_{i})\leq \sum_{i=1}^{n-1}w_{i}f(x_{i})

now we want to prove that:

f(\sum_{i=1}^{n}w_{i}x_{i})\leq \sum_{i=1}^{n}w_{i}f(x_{i})

we have:

RHS=w_{1}f(x_{1})+\sum_{i=2}^{n}w_{i}f(x_{i})

now put w'_{i}=\frac{w_{i}}{1-w_{1}} for every 2\leq i\leq n so we get that \sum_{i=2}^{n}w'_{i}=1

now we ge that:

RHS=w_{1}f(x_{1})+(1-w_{1})\sum_{i=2}^{n}w'_{i}f(x_{i})

now according to the hypothesis of the induction we get that \sum_{i=2}^{n}w'_{i}f(x_{i})\geq f(\sum_{i=2}^{n}w'_{i}x_{i}) so the
last inequality becomes:

RHS\geq w_{1}f(x_{1})+(1-w_{1})f(\sum_{i=2}^{n}w'_{i}x_{i})

now according to jensen forn=2 the above inequality becomes:

RHS\geq f(x_{1}w_{1}+(1-w_{1})\sum_{i=1}^{n}w'_{i}x_{i})=f(\sum_{i=1}^{n}x_{i}w_{i})

and we are done...
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PostPosted: Sun Jul 08, 2007 8:29 pm
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